This is one of the dumbest comments I have seen in a while ... why should anyone study history beyond the time that they have been alive, after all, they were not there to see it, right?!?!
That was not my point. I was simply wondering how he came to the conclusion that people today are more "pussified" than they were 50 years ago, since he was not alive back then to have first hand experience. Does he actually have any real evidence that people today are more pussified than they used to be? How does one even compare something like that?