The Constitution is not very specific in some of the powers that are granted to Congress.
Sure it is. If you understood the history leading up to the making of the Constitution, the events that transpired during the summer of 1787, and then the creation of the Bill of Rights, you would see why the powers delegated to the Federal government are very specific.
OnTopTime said:
“Congress shall have Power To… provide for the… general Welfare of the United States,” and “Congress shall have Power To regulate Commerce... among the several States…” WTF does that mean?
If you are having trouble understanding what those words mean in the context in which they were written, then why are you arguing with me about it? Are you just arguing to argue?
OnTopTime said:
You and I can debate the meaning of those words ad nauseam (although I would prefer to do it in a more convenient forum), but fortunately there are people much smarter than either you or I who have already made our arguments, and a deliberative body that has already ruled on the issues.
If you want to believe that you are less intelligent than others who have made similar arguments, then so be it. But you don't know me, where I've been, what I've done, or what I know. I am not a lawyer nor do I believe you need to be one to understand the Constitution (hell, John Marshall only studied law briefly, for less than a year), though I did take several law courses in college (which many of us know, really means nothing). With that said, I've read more books on Colonial history, the making of the Constitution, Constitutional history, and Constitutional law than I can count....for fun, because I find the subject very interesting. I'm not trying to impress you; I couldn't care less about that. I'm just trying to show you that the statements I make are not based on any preconceived notion I have or how I feel about any particular political party.
OnTopTime said:
It is emphatically the province and duty of the Judicial Department to say what the law is. Chief Justice John Marshall, Marbury v. Madison, 5 U.S. 137 (1803)
Yes, I'm quite familiar with the case. That's a fairly popular quote you picked but does nothing for your argument. It's almost ironic in a sense, that you quote an excerpt from the majority decision of a case that declares the Judiciary Act of 1789 unconstitutional, the same act that established the judicial framework, including the form and specific responsibilities of the Supreme Court itself. So here we have John Marshal proclaiming that the Supreme Court has the constitutional authority to rule on the constitutionality of laws, thereby interpreting the meaning of the Constitution. On one hand he's saying the law is unconstitutional and on the other he's using it to establish to power of judicial review. But where did this power of judicial review originate? Clearly, John Marshal couldn't derive this power from the Judiciary Act of 1789, for he had declared that law unconstitutional. And the power of judicial review isn't found in the Constitution. Don't you think if the founders wanted the Supreme Court to be the final arbiter on the constitutionality of laws, they would have written it into the Constitution?
And I haven't even mentioned the best part. The case itself was brought by Marbury because of the failure of Marshall (when he was Sec. of State under Adams) to deliver 17 appointments that Adams made, Marbury being one of those to not physically receive the appointment papers by Marshall. So, here was a guy deciding a case in which he had a hand in. If this happened today, people would be crying foul due to conflict of interest, and rightfully so.
Bottom line is the Constitution says nothing of judicial review or the Supreme Court's authority to determine the meaning of the Constitution. And since we're quoting excerpts from the decision of that case, how about this one. "The powers of the legislature are defined and limited; and that those limits may not be mistaken or forgotten, the Constitution is written."
I realize the Supreme Court is here to stay and the doctrine of
stare decisis will live on. But I always find it interesting when people turn to Supreme Court decisions to back up their argument regarding whether something basic is constitutional or not. It's like saying, "I'm not smart enough to figure this shit out on my own, so I'll defer to the Supreme Court." All of us here know that a decision made this year can be reversed next year or 10 or 20 years later. Constitutional principles don't change. If we find that changes to the Constitution are needed, there are processes specifically designed to do just that. The Constitution should NOT be changed through case law.
OnTopTime said:
Since 1942, the United States Supreme Court has allowed the Congress to exercise broad powers under the Commerce Clause. Basically any activity that had even a small impact on interstate commerce was found to be within the purview of Congress. The 1942 case involved an Ohio farmer who, in violation of the Agricultural Adjustment Act of 1938, grew more wheat on his farm than was allowed under the Act, even though the wheat was for use on his farm only and therefore would not be introduced into the stream of commerce. The Court ruled that if the farmer had limited his wheat planting to that allowed under the Act, he may have purchased additional wheat on the open market, and thus his excess planting could have had an impact on the sale of wheat, which was a commodity traded across state lines. This is still “good law” today, although the Court in a more recent decision (United States v. Lopez,514 U.S. 549 (1995)) has applied some limits to the power of Congress under the Commerce Clause.
The first case heard regarding the Commerce Clause was Gibbons v Ogden, heard by the Marshall Court (where have we heard that name before?). If you look a the history behind the commerce clause, you'll see that the impetus of the Constitutional Convention itself was the Confederation's lack of authority to regulate interstate commerce. The intent and purpose of the Commerce Clause currently in the Constitution was to eliminate trade barriers that some states had put up under the Articles of Confederation. You can look to the Supreme Court to give you your answer what the Commerce Clause means. I'll look to the history behind the intent and purpose.
OnTopTime said:
You are understandably peeved that Congress provides funding for “bullshit” programs that you don’t like (or that you feel are more properly left to the States), but the constitutionality of that spending is an issue that has been brought before, and answered by, the United States Supreme Court.
Ah yes, the Supreme Court again....the source for all our answers. And it's not so much the bullshit programs (yes, that is part of it). It's Congress interjecting itself more and more into areas they have no business in, setting up precedent to interject itself into other areas But I guess we'll just wait for the Supreme Court to determine whether Congress is violating the Constitution instead of actually thinking for ourselves and holding Congress accountable.